Talk:Anorgasmia

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Role of masturbation[edit]

Make things clear. so does masturbation help to regain orgasm with people having anorgasmia?

— Preceding unsigned comment added by 197.220.160.39 (talk) 20:44, 16 July 2012 (UTC) I've once again removed the false claim that anorgasmia is caused by Doug's disfavored masturbation style. Please don't re-add it without citing an appropriate medical source for this unsupported health claim. - Nunh-huh 23:21, 10 Jan 2005 (UTC)[reply]


There are now several articles that support the idea that prone masturbation is a cause of anorgasmia in men. Besides "Traumatic Masturbatory Syndrome" by Sank, there is now also a 2001 article by two physicians, BA Bartlik and MZ Goldstein, in Psychiatric Services 52:291-306 (2001) which states that patients with delayed ejaculation "often have atypical masturbatory styles, such as the face-down position, treatment may also involve masturbatory retraining." There is also an online article by another physician, Scott Gilbert, who says that an atypical masturbatory style is also a cause of sexual dysfunction. So, there is no active dispute over this point in the medical/psych. community. The only dispute comes from discontented Wikipedia editors. Doug22123 17:58, 2 May 2005 (UTC)[reply]

It's difficult to respond to someone who misrepresents his source material. Doug, you may not understand that utility in treatment does not indicate causality, though I've pointed it out to you elsewhere, or you may not care that you're injecting your own interpretation. You may not understand that the three articles (not studies) don't provide any empiric evidence for the suggestion you're making, only anecdotes and assertions. You may not care that Bartlik and Goldstein don't seem anxious to support your interpretation of their paper, but Wikipedia should. There is no consensus in the medical community that "improper masturbation" causes anorgasmia. -Nunh-huh 20:02, 10 May 2005 (UTC)[reply]


When case studies are properly crafted, as Sank's were, they constitute empirical evidence, not anecdotes. I must have missed the article about Bartlik & Goldstein denouncing my citation of them. Three or four articles is actually not a small amount of work on a topic. AIDS was established as a disease based on a case study of three people. I repeat that an atypical (esp. prone) masturbatory style is not a point of dispute in the health community. Doug22123 20:31, 11 May 2005 (UTC)[reply]
You can claim it, but it doesn't make it so. And it's utter nonsense to say that AIDS was established as a disease based on three case studies. - Nunh-huh 20:38, 11 May 2005 (UTC)[reply]
I think that due to the lifestyle constraints of spending so much time editing Wikipedia, some people here are considerably experienced wankers who may be biasing this article with their own POV (I speak from experience). Therefore it is perhaps even more important than ever that any claims made here be backed up by adequate sources. -Ok, joking aside now-

It seems that there actually is a school of thought which maintains masturbatory technique as a factor, in relation to associative psychology, in achieving orgasm through intercourse. So surely the correct way for this to be included in this entry is to present it as a theory rather than an established and untontested fact. --JamesTheNumberless 10:05, 25 January 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Erectile dysfunction?[edit]

The Primary Anorgasmia section mentions a partner who has primary or secondary difficulty in achieving an erection. Should this be a link to Erectile Dysfunction? I had guessed so, but I don't see any reference in that article to primary v. secondary, and this isn't an area in which I claim any knowledge. Hv 23:00, 27 July 2005 (UTC)[reply]

SSRI Misinformation[edit]

I've removed two unsubstantiated claims from this page: first, the claim that anorgasmia dissipates for SSRI-users over time, and, second, the claim that anorgasmia can persist permanently after SSRI use has stopped. Unless a reputable source can be found backing these claims, they shouldn't be here. My psychiatrist directly contradicted them when I talked to her about these issues, dispelling them as common misconceptions about the SSRI drugs. Please do not add them back to this page unless a reputable source can be found to support them.

I've taken SSRIs for about 10 years, and I cannot live without them, but it still takes me about 10 minutes MINIMUM to ejaculate while masturbation (with a woman, my record short time is about 45 minutes of intercourse.) It can take up to 2 hours and 45 minutes to masturbate, and over three hours with a woman.
Well, I can say from experience 2 things... First off, time doesn't diminsh the symptoms in me, and I've never seen any proof that it does for many, if not anyone. Second, I went off the drugs once to change from one to another, and it took me about 30 seconds to masturbate (I was a virgin back then). Well, I can say that discontinuing the drug does give you back what you lost, and as far as I know, that's supposedly a pretty common fact. I will try to get you a ref. I'm sure for some people, the drug's effect does diminish over time, but I don't think it's common. But we should ref all medical facts, and they are easy to ref anyhow. ReignMan (talk) 09:07, 12 March 2008 (UTC)[reply]
ReignMan writes, "Well, I can say that discontinuing the drug does give you back what you lost, and as far as I know, that's supposedly a pretty common fact." Ability to have an orgasm is common and anorgasmia is not, so we should ignore anorgasmia? No. Orgasmic function commonly returns soon after SSRI discontinuation, but that doesn't mean Wikipedia should ignore the uncommon times that it doesn't, regardless of your original research on yourself, study size of 1, or personal body of knowledge ("as far as I know").--71.203.125.108 (talk) 17:51, 10 April 2010 (UTC)[reply]

Hypnosis Cures all Physical Cuases of Anorgasmia?[edit]

"In many contexts, anorgasmia whatever the physical factor can be solved through a mental process of conditioning, and as such hypnosis is a common and effective treatment for anorgasmia."

Um, I'm sorry, but radical removal of the clitorus (in females) and prostate (in males) are shown to cause a complete removal of the ability to orgasm. I've revised this to be more equivocal than appearing that Hypnosis is a cure-all.



added by ichi at midnight (GMT), July 13th 2008.
http://www.theaustralian.news.com.au/story/0,20867,20575267-28737,00.html
Removal of clitoris (or spinal trauma severing the clitoris-brain nerves) does not automatically mean complete removal of the ability to orgasm.
In the same article it is mentioned that women have for decades claimed loss of sexual pleasure following hysterectomy and removal of the cervix, while the clitoris is left intact.

Fact still remains that some 90% of patients receiving a radical prostatectomy lose entirely their ability to orgasm. They are able to ejaculate by electrostimulation, but they can't have an "orgasm", which is not the same as ejaculating. Hypnosis cannot cure physical deficiencies, simple fact. It may be useful in overcoming psychological blocks to orgasm which, well, a large number of causes actually fall under. --Puellanivis (talk) 03:23, 14 July 2008 (UTC)[reply]

An article in front of me says that the orgasm is still a mainly cerebral event. The idea that hypnosis would be able to ellicit such an event isn't strange to me- it sounds plausible. That's a different claim than saying it could be a cure...

The article is Sexual sequelae of general medical disorders by rosmary basson and WIllibrord Wijmar Schultz —Preceding unsigned comment added by 129.125.181.12 (talk) 15:55, 7 April 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Difference between primary and secondary?!![edit]

Hi, I'm not sure exactly what the difference between primary and secondary anorgasmia is, even less so after reading this article. What is the difference between "a condition where one cannot physically orgasm" and "the loss of the ability to have orgasms." Those are the two proferred definitions, and the contrast is not readily apparent. Considering the examples, several hypotheses as to what might be the difference are shot down. For example, is primary anorgasmia something you're born with, whereas secondary is acquired? No, because genital mutilation is on there. Is primary anorgasmia concerned with psychological vs. physical causes? No, again because of mutilation being an example of it. I am very confused. Are all of the examples in the right category? —The preceding unsigned comment was added by 75.69.31.46 (talk) 08:01, 6 January 2007 (UTC).[reply]

Additionally confusing is the article states two types have been defined, and goes on to discuss four types: primary, secondary, situational and random. Keesiewonder talk 01:04, 16 March 2007 (UTC)[reply]
The two vs. four probably is something that was missed during an edit adding situation and random.
As for what the difference is, I actually believe the distinction is primary anorgasmic is pre-orgasmic, and secondary orgasmic is post-orgasmic. --Puellanivis 05:31, 16 March 2007 (UTC)[reply]
I would think that primary inorgasmia is caused directly by some physiological cause, whereas secondary inorgasmia is the result of some other problem, such as depression. Speaking of "other problems", wouldn't a simple lack of attraction qualify as a secondary cause? --MQDuck 12:23, 7 October 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Primary anorgasmia is when someone has never had an orgasm. (My experience as a clinician is that a lack of knowledge and education are the primary cause of this, but that may have to do with the population I deal with -- college students.) Secondary anorgasmia is when someone was once able to have orgasms regularly but no longer can. Secondary anorgasmia can result from the use of SSRIs, from spinal cord damage, etc. The tough part is that I just remember that from my sex therapy courses, I don't have a reference on hand. I'll try to remember to look at PSYCinfo. Katsesama (talk) 00:58, 18 December 2008 (UTC)[reply]
This is a very clear distinction and this type of definition is often used in psychiatric diagnosis. What is the problem? Primary means "never had an orgasm" and secondary mean "lost the ability to have orgasms." Not unclear at all, is it? 68.54.3.56 (talk) 18:00, 2 October 2011 (UTC)[reply]

Removed text[edit]

Given the social climate where males are just expected to be able to orgasm, it is possible that they feel ashamed, and refuse to discuss it, or distance themselves sexually. Either way, primary anorgasmia is largely considered a "female only" condition, which can be extremely frustrating to males who are left feeling alone by an affliction that few people acknowledge.

Given all the ads on TV about erectile dysfunction lately, this doesn't seem accurate. In any case, it's referenced, and doesn't specify which part of the world it's talking about. -- Beland 15:21, 2 June 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Anorgasmia and erectile dysfunction are two different things. Someone can maintain an erection but not be able to reach orgasm. I agree that most of the anorgasmia article seems to assume that nearly everyone with this problem is female, which as far as I can tell from what I've been reading in the last few weeks, is not the case. Anorgasmia in men and women is an established side effect of SSRIs. Since long-term use of SSRIs also causes movement disorders, like parkinson's, it makes sense that it might affect the nerves and muscles involved in orgasm.
Anorgasmia is quite distinct from both erectile dysfunction, and even ejaculatory response. Anorgasmia specifically refers to the condition where a person is fully sexually functional, however is unable to reach orgasm. While SSRIs are becoming more common, and thus more men are exposed to the "sexual side-effects" of them (anorgasmia) they are still generally the only males who have anorgasmia. Meanwhile, depression is more common in females, and alternate causes of anorgasmia are by far more common in females. SSRIs are more likely to cause difficulty reaching orgasm in males more than total anorgasmia itself in males. Thus, you have less than 50% of the people taking SSRIs who are male, then less than that of males who have total loss of orgasmic response, and then added to this relatively large number one has the majority of those who have had a radical prostatectomy. This number still pales in comparison to the number of females with anorgasmia. It's simply a matter of perspective, every 1 in 5 patients of breast cancer are males, but you never hear about them. No matter how common anorgasmia may be in men, it's still not socially considered to be existant. --Puellanivis 23:08, 23 July 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Tone needs revision?[edit]

Having just read through the anorgasmia and dyspareunia pages, I have to say that I'm a bit uncomfortable about the level of condescension on these pages. I recognize that this may be reflective of the medical profession's attitude towards women's sexuality, but these pages are written from the perspective of anorgasmia/dyspareunia as psychological defects of the woman and verge into being a bit creepy when they discuss how women can be made sexually normal. Consider these gems:

Therapy can be aimed at helping them give up the need to keep their sexual feelings under control at all times. [anorgasmia] Relationship problems are generally the result of chronic frustration, disappointment, and depression associated with the condition. [dyspareunia]

I realize Wikipedia articles are meant to be objective, but “objective” doesn’t equal “harsh.” These could be rewritten with a more sympathetic tone while being made equally or more informative. Arkaaito 03:26, 5 September 2007 (UTC)[reply]

I think most women would agree that anargasmia is a defect, if "defect" is defined as a harmful abnormality. And anyhow, this word doesn't use the word "defect" and medical science doesn't use that word either - the term would be "dysfunction". And almost any woman would recognize it as an unfortunate dysfunction. In fact, NOT recognizing it as a real problem (as has very often been the case in history) is a lot more sexist than assuming it is one.
Second, I'm not sure what you consider "harsh" about what you quoted. You seem to be saying that stating facts is contradictory to sensitivity (a point I don't necessarily concede). I don't want or mean to attack you, but I fear you're assuming that women need more sensitivity than men (who can handle the straight facts) do. Anyhow, I don't see how it could (or should) be more sympathetic without being less informational, but if you have a way, by all means, share it. --MQDuck 12:41, 7 October 2007 (UTC)[reply]

"Gladipudendal reflexes"[edit]

What say? Tomertalk 20:15, 3 June 2008 (UTC)[reply]

Selection pressures and orgasm[edit]

I removed the following information below, as it was both uncited and seemed to constitute Original Research. In fact, there are plenty of health benefits (and therefore selective advantages) that come with orgasm. Cheers, Vectro (talk) 01:43, 11 December 2009 (UTC)[reply]

From a biological standpoint, there is no known selective advantage that accrues either to women who experience orgasm, or to those who do not. Both are equally capable of reproducing in that both are equally likely to conceive upon intercourse. However, it is possible that anorgasmic women may be less interested in having sex; a characteristic that may render them slightly less likely to have as many children as their orgasmic counterparts.

confusion: anorgasmic ejaculation[edit]

I think in occident there is a wrong prejudice that male ejaculation is orgasm. Indeed it is not: one can ejuculate with no, few, or ordinary pleasure --which is not extra-ordinary orgasm.

Delayed or absence of ejaculation, which indeed usually prevent male orgasm, should be considered as such: delayed or absence of ejaculation. Strictly speaking, thus, male anorgasmia should only denote absence of orgasm in presence of ejaculation.
I suspect this to be quite common, but ignored because of the above confusion. This may also be common by females, experiencing physical orgasm (vaginal contractions and such), possibly with some pleasure, but no genuine orgasm.

Should we introduce such considerations in the article? If yes, how?
Denispir (talk)


Anorgasmia/Español[edit]

El papel de la masturbación

Existen algunos artículos que apoyan la idea de que la masturbación boca abajo puede ser causa de anorgasmia en hombres. Además del “Síndrome de Masturbación Traumática” descrito por Sank, existe un articulo por dos médicos BA Bartlik y MZ Goldstein en Servicios Psiquiátricos 52:291-306 (2001), el cual indica que pacientes con eyaculación tardía “usualmente tienen posiciones atípicas de masturbación, como la posición boca abajo, y el tratamiento podría ser el reentrenamiento de masturbación. Existe otro artículo en línea por el médico Scott Gilbert, quien dice que una posición atípica de masturbación es también la causa de disfunción sexual. De modo que no existe una disputa sobre este punto en la comunidad médica y psiquiátrica. La única disputa viene de un editor de Wikipedia, Doug 22123, 17:58, Mayo 2, 2005 (UTC). Es difícil responderle a alguien que malinterpreta sus fuentes de información. Doug, puede que no entiendas la utilidad en los tratamientos no indica causalidad, aunque te lo he mencionado anteriormente, y no te importe añadir tu propia interpretación. Es posible que no entiendas que los tres artículos (no estudios) no muestran evidencia empírica para lo que sugieres, sólo anécdotas y aseveraciones. Puede que no te importe que Bartlik y Goldstein no estén ansiosos por apoyar tu interpretación del artículo, pero a Wikipedia debería importarle. Cuando los casos de estudio están hechos apropiadamente, como los de Sank, constituyen evidencia empírica, no anécdotas. Debí haberme perdido el artículo en el que Barlik y Goldstein denuncian mis citas sobre ellos. Tres o cuatro artículos no es un número reducido de trabajos sobre un tema. El SIDA fue considerada una enfermedad gracias a un caso de estudio de tan solo tres personas. Repito que un estilo atípico de masturbación, no es un punto de disputa para la comunidad médica. Doug22123 20:31, Mayo 11, 2005 (UTC).

Al parecer existe una escuela de pensamiento que mantiene a la técnica de masturbación como un factor, en relación a la psicología asociativa, que ayuda a alcanzar el orgasmo durante una relación sexual. Así que la forma correcta de incluir esto en esta publicación, es presentarlo como teoría en lugar de un hecho establecido.

'Disfunción eréctil' En esta sección se debe añadir información sobre disfunción eréctil. ¿La hipnosis puede curar las causas físicas de la anorgasmia? “En muchos contextos, sin importar el factor físico, la anorgasmia se puede resolver por medio de un proceso de condicionamiento, como es el caso de la hipnosis, es un tratamiento común y efectivo para la anorgasmia”. Um, lo siento, pero la eliminación radical del clítoris (en mujeres) y de la próstata (en hombres) se ha visto implicada como una causa completa de la incapacidad del orgasmo. La extirpación del clítoris (o un trauma espinal que dañe los nervios del clítoris) no significa automáticamente la eliminación de la capacidad para sentir un orgasmo. En el mismo artículo se menciona que las mujeres han afirmado por décadas la pérdida del placer sexual después de una histerectomía o extirpación del cervix, aún cuando el clítoris se encuentra intacto. Un artículo dice que el orgasmo es un evento cerebral. La idea de que la hipnosis pueda desencadenar tal evento no es extraño.

Diferencia entre anorgasmia primaria y secundaria Hola, no estoy seguro de la diferencia entre anorgasmia primaria y secundaria, y menos después de haber leído este artículo. ¿Cuál es la diferencia entre “una condición en la que uno no puede experimentar un orgasmo físicamente” y “la pérdida de la habilidad para tener orgasmos”. Esas son las dos definiciones preferidas, y el contraste no es aparente Considerando los ejemplos, varias hipótesis sobre cual podría ser la diferencia han sido negadas. Por ejemplo, ¿La anorgasmia primaria es algo con lo que se nace y la secundaria adquirida? No, porque la mutilación genital aparece. ¿La anorgasmia primaria está onvolucrada con causas físicas vs. causas psicológicas? No, de nuevo porque la mutilación genital es un ejemplo de ésta. Estoy muy confundido, ¿Están todos los ejemplos en la categoría correcta? Yo podría creer que la anorgasmia primaria es causada directamente por una causa psicológica, mientras que la anorgasmia secundaria es el resultado de otro problema, como depresión. Hablando de “otros problemas”, ¿Una falta de atracción no podría calificarse como una causa secundaria? La anorgasmia primaria es cuando una persona jamás ha tenido un orgasmo. (Mi experiencia clínica es que la falta de conocimiento y educación son la primera causa de esto, pero puede tener que ver con la población con la que interactúan estudiantes universitarios.) La anorgasmia secundaria es cuando alguien que había podido tener orgasmos regularmente, ya no es capaz de tenerlos. La anorgasmia secundaria puede ser el resultado del uso de SSRIs, daño de la espina dorsal, etc.


Dado el contexto social en el cual se espera que los hombres generen un orgasmo, es posible que se sientan avergonzados y se nieguen a discutir sobre la disfunción o simplemente se distancien o desvinculen sexualmente de cualquier persona. De cualquier manera, la anorgasmia primaria es generalmente considerada una condición exclusiva en las mujeres, lo cual puede ser extremadamente frustrante para los hombres quienes se sienten solos bajo esta aflicción que poco conocida entre su género.

Dado a todos los anuncios televisivos sobre disfunción eréctil existentes en la actualidad, este padecimiento no es claro. De cualquier manera, está referenciado y no se especifica de qué parte del mundo se habla particularmente. Beland 15:21, Junio 2, 2007 (UTC)

La anorgasmia y la disfunción eréctil son dos cosas diferentes. Alguien puede mantener una erección pero no ser capaz de alcanzar el orgasmo. Se es consciente en que la mayor parte del artículo de anorgasmia se asume que prácticamente todas las personas que padecen esto son mujeres, no obstante, conforme más información se ha desarrollado, se sabe que esto no es cierto. Anorgasmia en hombres y mujeres es un efecto secundario establecido de el inhibidor selectivo de absorción de serotinina que de igual forma causa desórdenes motores como enfermedad de Parkinson, por lo tanto, hace sentido que pudiese adectar los nervios y músculos involucrados en el organismo. La anorgasmia es muy distina tanto de disfunción eréctil e incluso de la respuesta eyaculatoria. Anorgasmia específicamente se refiere a la condición en donde una persona es sexualmente funcional,sin embargo, no logra alcanzar el orgasmo. Mientras que la utilización del inhibidor selectivo de absorción de serotinina es cada vez más común, son los hombres quienes deberían verse mayormente afectados por los efectos secundarios de éste como lo es la anorgasmia, y son quienes lo utilizan quienes generalmente sufren esta condición. Mientras tanto, la depresión es más común en mujeres y las causas alternativas de anorgasmia son por mucho más comunes en mujeres. Los inhibidores selectivos de absorción de serotonina son propensos a causar dificultad de alcanzar el orgasmo masculina más que el total de anorgasmia por sí sola en hombres.


Así, menos del 50% de las personas tomando SSRIs que son hombres, luego menos de esos hombres quienes tienen una pérdida orgásmica total, y después añadido a este número relativamente grande uno tiene la mayoría de aquellos que han tenido una prostatectomía radical. Este número aún palidece en comparación al número de mujeres con anorgasmia. Es simpemente una cuestión de perspectiva, uno en cada cicno pacientes con cáncer de mama son hombres, pero uno nunca escucha sobre ellos. Sin importar cuán común la anorgasmia pueda ser en hombres, no es socialmente considerada como existente. Puellanivis 23:08, 23 Julio 2007 (UTC)

Reflejos gladipudendales

Qué hay que decir sobre ello? TomerTALK 20:15, 3 Junio 2008 (UTC)

Selección de presiones y orgasmo

Removí la siguente información ya que carecía de citas y parecía ser parte de Original Research. De hecho, hay muchos beneficios a la salud y ventajas selectivas que acompañan al orgasmo. Saludos, Vectro (talk) 01:43, 11 Diciembre de 2009 (UTC). Desde un punto de vista biológico, no hay alguna ventaja selectiva que acreciente a las mujeres que experimentan orgasmo y las mujeres que no. Ambas son igualmente capaces de reproducirse y ambas tienen las mismas probabilidades de quedar embarazadas tras tener una relación sexual. De cualquier manera, es posible que las mujeres anorgásmicas estén menos interesadas en tener relaciones sexuales; una característica que puede determinar que tengan menos hijos a diferencia de la contraparte capaz de experimentar orgasmo.

Confusión: eyaculación anorgásmica En occidente existe un prejuicio erróneo que dice que la eyaculación es el orgasmo masculino. De hecho, no lo es; uno puede eyacular con poco placer o placer ordinario, lo cual no es un orgasmo extra-ordinario. El retraso o ausencia de eyaculación, lo cual de hecho usualmente previene el orgasmo masculino, debe ser considerado como tal: retraso o ausencia de eyaculación. Estrictamente hablado, así, la anorgasmia masculina debe sólo denotar ausencia de orgasmo en presencia de eyaculación. Se sospecha que sea un suceso bastante común pero ignorado por la confusión comentada anteriormente. Esto también puede ser común en mujeres, experimentando orgasmo físico (contracciones vaginales) probablemente con algo de placer, pero sin un orgasmo genuino. Se deberían de incluir estas consideraciones en el artículo? Si sí, ¿cómo? Denispir (talk)

Anorgasmia: prevalence in women[edit]

Hi. I'd like to edit the first portion of this article.

First, I think adding the prevalence, 4.7% (according to Abnormal Psychology Sixth Edition by Susan Nolen-Hoeksema), of how often this occurs in women would help those seeking out that information. Adding it in the first portion of the article would give allow people to get that statistic instantly. Second, I'd like to add that it is most common in postmenopausal women.

Let me know if anyone has any questions!

Carlaognibeni (talk) 03:01, 21 April 2014 (UTC)[reply]

Carlaognibeni (talk · contribs), first you put added "In males, the condition is most commonly related to premature ejaculation." Then you changed it to "In males, it is most closely associated with delayed ejaculation," and removed the fist usage of the source, which you added to support that material. What does the source state? Flyer22 (talk) 03:24, 21 April 2014 (UTC)[reply]

Hitachi Magic Wand[edit]

Why is there a picture of this device when there is no reference to it in the text? — Preceding unsigned comment added by 46.208.249.4 (talk) 17:45, 10 September 2017 (UTC)[reply]

Why is this the first link tho[edit]

where’s the link for e.d (sadly so common) and why does this say ‘involuntary’ so many times. 2603:8001:7704:DC2F:C8FF:2BEF:7555:66F3 (talk) 05:39, 3 January 2022 (UTC)[reply]

Moved content[edit]

moved[1] (see WP:MEDRS for idenifying reliable medical sourcing; WP:OR for information about Wikipedia's "no original research" policy):

A Genome-Wide Association Study of Female Sexual Dysfunction published in 2012 by Burri et al stated that “twin studies have shown a genetic contribution to the development and maintenance of FSD.” The study further elaborated that inherited gene variations contribute to FSD. A study entitled “Genetic influences on variation in female orgasmic function: a twin study” by Kate M Dunn et al found that “A significant genetic influence was seen with an estimated heritability for difficulty reaching orgasm during intercourse of 34% (95% confidence interval 27–40%) and 45% (95% confidence interval 38–52%) for orgasm during masturbation. These results show that the wide variation in orgasmic dysfunction in females has a genetic basis and cannot be attributed solely to cultural influences.”

(Genetic influences on variation in female orgasmic function: a twin study

Kate M Dunn,2 Lynn F Cherkas,1 and Tim D Spector1,*) 86.177.202.142 (talk) 14:32, 2 March 2024 (UTC)[reply]